Sunday, November 17, 2013

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My question is this, was a pogrom on the scale perpetrated by Hitler and Nazi Germany possible in any other country at the time?  We have seen that in many countries at the time there were feelings of anti-antisemitism to varying degrees.  In the U.S. powerful individuals, such as Henry Ford, and groups, The Ku Klux Klan, advocated that action be taken against the Jewish immigrants that were entering the country.  In addition the ideas of eugenics, that Hitler eventually borrowed, had their roots in American science.  Alfred Dreyfus was a French citizen and a member of the military general staff but was still accused and found guilty of treason.  Such a crime had heavy implications about the loyalty of Jews to their country.  Even when war did break out some areas that were invaded by the Nazis cooperated with the Germans and gave up Jews living there.  In the modern day region that was Ukraine nearly a million Jews were captured and executed by Nazis.  The main difference that I can see between Germany and other countries was that in Germany a anti-Semitic government with an aggressive leader was able to obtain office.  In Russia such ideas were rejected by the communists, while in the U.S. democracy was able to limit immigration of Jews but could not outright persecute them, though eugenics was gaining ground.  England had gave a remarkable number of Jewish soldiers medals for the their efforts in The Great War.  In France antisemitism was alive and present, the actions taken by French after German occupation show such, and in Italy as well a fascist government violently opposed to socialism emerged.  Had Germany not began World War II might not a similar event have occurred in another country?

In addition, why were Jewish shops and profeshionals targeted before synagouges in Nazi Germany?
 The reason would appear to be that the Germans were more concerned about the Jews as a race rather then a religion.  Jews were seen to dominate in many fields, such as the medical profession,  and Jewish business owners were thought to be draining the German economy.  By attacking, fining and liquidating Jewish business owners and their property; the Nazis were able to seize funds while at the same time limit Jewish presence in German society.  Jewish doctors, professors, and students were forced to abandon their profession as well.  Compared to these more visible individuals synagogues were far less important.  It is true that later the Nazis defined a Jew as "...belonged to the Jewish religious community at the time this law was issued or joined the community later." but the actual communities themselves seemed of little importance.  By looking into the future we can perhaps see why the Jewish community and synagogues were at first overlooked.  With Germany preparing for war the acquisition of funds as we as educating a new generation in Nazi thought took precedence.  Adolf Hitler had a clear idea of the method of dealing with Jews in the future but until Germany was militarily built up the primary goal was to limit Jewish influence and power in society. 

1 comment:

  1. You've mixed up the idea of "eugenics" and "epigenetics." The first one is what the Nazis and others did supposedly to improve the human race by limiting who was allowed to reproduce. In the US, the eugenics movement led to the passage of laws that permitted sterilizing (against their will) people who were considered mentally defective or mentally retarded. The Nazis passed similar laws but went further than the US and other countries (who merely sterilized people) - they killed disabled and ill people (for example, people with schizophrenia or mentally retarded children). "Epigenetics" is a term used by contemporary biologists for something else.

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